Sunday 26 February 2012

GPAT Model Paper -1

GPAT Model Paper -1

1.. Minute opening of the tubular structure playing an important role in germination of seeds is
a) Arillode b) Caruncle c) Micropyle d) Hilum

2. Polyuronic acids are the salts of
a) Sod & calcium b) Calcium & magnesium c) Sodium & Magnesium d) Potasium & Calcium

3. Type of endorphins helpful in relieving pain are
a) alpha b) gamma c) delta d) beta

4. Opium alkaloids are derived from
a) Tyrosine b) phenylalanine c) ornithine d) mevalonic acid

5. Number of Hydroxyl groups present in Pyrogallal are
a) three b) two c) four d) one

6. “Liliaceae” is the family of
a) Ginseng b) Bitter almond c) Cascara d) red squill

7. During Nitric acid test of aloe, color obtained was Brownish-green. variety of aloe is
a) Zanzibar b) Cape c) Curacao d) Socotrine

8. Carsara contains Cascarosides, which are reported to have
a) O-glycosides b) C-glycosides c) both a & b d) N-glycosides

9. All statements about Digitalis thapsi are false except
a) it is 3 times more potent than Digitalis Purpurea
b) does not possess calcium oxalate crystals
c) presence of non-glandular trichomes
d) absence of cuticle

10. Enzymatic biotransformation of pervoside from thevetia gives
a) digitoxin b) digoxin c) encordin d) neriifolin

11. All microscopical statements are true for “Rattlesnake root” except
a) starch grains are present b) absence of phloem fibres
c) medullary rays are lignified d) presence of diarch primary xylem

12. Vanillin shows all IR peaks (cm-1) in the region below, except one
a) 1050-1150 (COR stretch) b) 1720 (C=O stretch) c) 3650 (OH stretch) d) 1650 (NH bend)

13. A test that differentiate between pale catechu & black catechu is
a) vanillin & Hydrochloric acid gives Pinkish red color
b) green fluorescence with petroleum ether & ethanolic sodium hydroxide
c) reddish brown fluorescence with chloroform
d) Brownish red color with ferric chloride.

14. Chief active constituent present in Anethum graveolens is
a) Fenchone b) carvone c) anethole d) cineole

15. Abietic acid present in colophony is the salt of
a) calcium b) potassium c) copper d) sodium

16. Under Deuterium lamp, Rhapontic rhubarb will give color
a) deep violet b) deep blue c) black d) yellowish

17. Type of calcium oxalate crystals present in Eugenia caryophillus are
a) Cluster b) Rossette c) acicular d) prismatic

18. In Jalap, Convolvulin on hydrolysis yields rhamnoconvolvulic acid, exogenic acid &
a) atropine b) abietic acid c) tiglic acid d) umbellic acid

19. Number of basic isoprene units present in Bixin are
a) six b) eight c) ten d) five

20. Type of steroisomer cinchonine is
a) + b) - d) ± d) optically inactive

21. Characterstic odour of cocaine is due to
a) methyl benzoate b) methyl salicyalte c) vanillin d) asiragalin

22. Artemisinin is a sesquiterpene lactone from Artemisia annua, should contain active constituent not less than
a) 0.75 % b) 1 % c) 0.1% d) 0.05 %

23. All statements are true for Bromelain except
a) inhibits COX enzyme b) mixture of proteolytic enzymes
c) Source is Serratia bromosus d) family is bromeliaceae

24. A water soluble component from Claviceps purpurea is
a) ergocornine b) ergocristine c) ergotamine d) ergometrine

25. Murexide test is done for the presence of caffine, uses potassium chlorate & Hydrochloric acid treatment with the drug gives characterstic
a) yellow color b) purple color c) purple ppt d) green ppt

26. During friability studies, tablets are supposed to be best that lose weight less than
a) 1.3 % b) 0.5-1 % c) 5 % d) 2-3 %

27. Find the sparingly soluble category of 1 mg drug tested for its solubility
a) 100-1000 ml b) 10-30 ml c) 30-100 ml d) more than 1000 ml

28. A tablet excipient that is disintegrant as well as binder
a) acacia b) PVP c) PEG d) carnoba wax

29. A diluent used in vitamin tablets is
a) anhydrous lactose b) mannitol c) calcium phosphate d) cellulose

30. Veegum “HV” is
a) o/w b) w/o c) both d) none

31. All Ranges of Tablet efficiency of a sugar coated tablet are acceptable except one
a) 61 % b) 57 % c) 67 % d) 73 %

32. Kaolin, cocoa powder are used in one step of tablet sugar coating
a) seal coating b) syrup coating c) sub coating d) polishing

33. A problem of tablet coating that can be relieved by replacing low melting point substances with higher melting point substances is
a) orange peel effect b) lamination c) blistering d) picking

34. Hard gelatin capsule size possessing lesser volume (ml) is of size
a) 00 b) 0 c) 2 d) 5

35. Propellent number of dichlorotetrafluoroethane is
a) 114 b) 14 c) 112 d) 11

36. All statements are wrong regarding DOT test, except
a) is the evaluation test of aerosols
b) is “Di octyl thalate” test, very important test carried out for HEPA filter effeciency
c) is done at -25’F
d) best technique to produce class 100 room

37. All equations best suits to Fisher subsieve sizer for surface area determination except
a) BET equation b) Poiseuille’s equation c) stokes equation d) kozeny carman equation

38. Critical micelle concentration (CMC) gets decreased by
a) branching of hydrocarbon chain b) putting double bond in hydrocarbon chain
c) increasing hydrocarbon chain length d) adding OH substitution to the hydrocarbon chain

39. Find the deflocculated sedimentation volume of paracetamol suspension in water. initial volume was 100 ml, final volume was find to be 44 ml (degree of flocculation is 1.5)
a) 2.9 b) 1.2 c) 0.90 d) 0.29

40. Arrange the following processes in order of their formation
a) Dissolution, disintegration, deaggregation, absorption
b) Disintegration, dissolution, deaggregation, absorption
c) Disintegration, deaggregation, dissolution, absorption
d) Dissolution, deaggregation, disintegration, absorption

41. The drug with faster absorption is
a) Phenytoin b) Barbiturates c) Aspirin d) Imipramine

42. The drug with high protein binding is
a) A parentral solution b) Phenytoin tablet given in epilepsy
c) Nitroglycerine sublingual tablet d) Di sodium cromoglycate soft gelatin capsule

43. The drug which is not excreted rapidly in urine is
a) Di sodium chromoglycate b) mecamylamine c) guanithidine d) loperamide

44. Two statements are true regarding Urinary excretion data
1. Study is supposed to best if at least 5 half lives are determined
2. Study is supposed to best if at least 7 half lives are determined
3. At least 10% drug should be excreted in urine in changed/metabolite form
4. At least 10% drug should be excreted in urine in unchanged form
a) 1 & 3 b) 2 & 3 c) 2 & 4 d) 1 & 4

45. 500 mg Paracetamol was given to a patient. First order elimination rate constant is 10 and clearance is 50 ml/min. Find the plasma drug concentration.
a) 10 mg b) 50 mg c) 100 mg d) 5 mg

46. An agent helpful in retention of powder over face is
a) glycerine b) lanolin c) butyl stearate d) lactose

47. A poly uronic acid derivative from Astragalus gummifer is
a) gum acacia b) tragacanth c) Bentonite d) sodium alginate

48. Kaolin is the silicate of
a) magnesium b) aluminium c) fluorine d) both a & b

49. Pearlscent agents & sequestrants are added in the formulation of
a) nail laquers b) depilatories c) shampoo d) hair gels & lotion

50. Polyoxyl stearates esters of polyoxyethylene glycols are named
a) macrogols b) spans c) tweens d) poloxalkols

51. Identify the aprotic solvent
a) chloroform b) triethylamine c) ferric chloride d) ammonia

52. An indicator used in Volhard method of precipitation reaction is
a) pot permagnate b) ferric ammonium sulphate c) pot dichromate d) crystal violet

53. All are Reference electrode except
a) silver silver chloride electrode b) saturated calomel electrode
c) glass membrane electrode d) standard hydrogen electrode

54. Identify the demasking agent
a) iodide b) hydrazine c) formaldehyde d) cyanide

55. A graph between current and active ions in solution (ml) keeping voltage constant is plotted in
a) polarography b) conductometery c) amperometery d) potentiometry

56. 0.001Å-0.005Å range is exhibited by type of rays
a) x-rays b) radiowave c) microwave d) gamma rays

57. Near IR region ( cm-1) is
a) 12500-4000 b) below 667 c) 4000-667 d) 1250

58. 11-cis retinal shows an alkene (CH bending) range at cm-1
a) 900 b) 3030 c) 600 d) 1350

59. NMR delta value of NH2 group is
a) 2-3 b) 1-2 c) 6-8 d) 1-5

60. detector used in IR spectroscopy is
a) Bolometer b) Gieger muller counter c) PMT d) flame ionization detector

61. In interference filter, high dielectric constant films are suspended between two parallel rodes, these rodes are made up of
a) gold b) silver c) Silicon oxide d) calcium fluoride

62. A term best describe for a decrease in the intensity of absorption is
a) hypsochromic shift b) hypochromic shift c) bathochromic shift d) hyperchromic shift

63. Find the lambda max value for the compound given below


a) 245 nm b) 240 nm c) 275nm d) 270 nm

64. Find the lambda max value for the compound given below

a) 240 nm b) 256 nm c) 270 nm d) 275 nm

65. Nujol oil is used a sampling technique in
a) IR b) UV c) mass spectroscopy d) NMR

66. Unit of chemical shift is
a) tesla b) PPM c) hertz d) dyne/cm

67. All are the solvent used in H-NMR except
a) DMSO b) chloroform c) carbon disulphide d) carbon tetrachloride

68. λ=2ήb/m is the equation of
a) IR b) NMR c) mass d) UV

69. In mass spectroscopy, graph is plotted between
a) m/e ratio vs velocity of ions b) m/e ratio vs magnetc field
c) m/e ratio vs intensities of ions d) m/e ratio vs potential difference among ions

70. Number of H-NMR signals given by Ethyl acetate is
a) 4 b) 2 c) 3 4) 5

71. All functional groups decreases fluorescence, except
a) NH2 b) NO2 c) COOH d) bromine

72. Amide-1 band (C=O stretch) is observed at cm-1
a) 1650 b) 1725 c) 1740 d) 1590

73. A coating substance that produces mid IR range is
a) KBr coated zirconium b) KBr coated germanium
c) polyethylene terpthalate d) polyoxyethylene barium

74. Spraying agent used for the detection of lipids in chromatographic plate is
a) diphenyl hydrazine b) bromocresol green c) bromophenol blue d) aniline phthalate

75. Gradient technique is the technique of elution that includes
a) changing adsorbent for different substances b) changing solvent composition
c) keeping solvent system same throughout the process d) rising evaporating temperature76. Technique used to improve the process of separation by the column/detector in gas chromatography is done by
a) derivitisation by treatment with tetramethyl silane (TMS)
b) making the component more volatile
c) increasing active sites on solid support
d) decreasing the thickness/amount of liquid film on solid support

77. Bragg’s law associated with X-ray diffraction studies is
a) mλ=d (sin i±sin r) b) 2d sin θ=nλ c) x/m=kc d) ν=γBo/2П

78. Kernicterus is caused by
a) dapsone b) chloramphenicol c) prednisolone d) phenytoin

79. Beta carbolines are the
a) partial agonist of benzodiazepines b) pure agonist of benzodiazepines
c) pure antagonist of benzodiazepines d) inverse agonist of benzodiazepines

80. An anticholinesterase mostly preferered in myasthenia gravis is
a) physostigmine b) pilocarpine c) pyridostigmine d) neostigmine

81. Vasamicol act by
a) blocking choline transport in to storage vesicles b) blocking choline uptake in nerves
c) blocks releases of Ach from nerve endings d) stimulates releases of Ach from nerve endings

82. Phenylepherine is an
a) α1 agonist b) β1 agonist c) α1 antagonist d) α2 agonist

83. Bretylium
a) prevent the release of NA from nerve endings b) displaces NA from nerve endings
c) stimulates the release of NA from nerve endings d) reduces the formation of NA

84. Ondansetron is
a) 5-HT agonist b) 5-HT antagonist c) AT1 agonist d) H1 antagonist

85. A prostaglandin useful in inducing abortion is
a) carboprost b) misoprostol c) alprostadil d) dinoprostone

86. All are vasodilator except
a) nitric oxide b) bradykinin c) captopril d) histamine


87. An effective antidote in cyanide poisoning is
a) pralidoxime b) erythrityl trinitrate c) atropine d) flumazenil

88. Hypertrichosis is the side effect of
a) sildenafil b) minoxidil c) diazoxide d) phenytoin

89. Most potent steroisomer of warfarin is
a) R b) S c) Racemic d) none

90. Colestipol is a hypolipidimic agent, act by
a) inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase b) breaking cholesterol in to bile acids
c) catalyse the hydrolysis of triglycerides d) inhibit the synthesis of cholesterol

91. Flecainide is an antiarrhythmic drug, comes under the category
a) class 1B b) class 1C c) class 2 d) class 4

92. Anti-platelet effect of aspirin is mediated by inhibiting
a) prostaglandins b) thromoxanes c) leucoteines d) epoprostinol

93. Wilson’s disease is caused due to the abnormal metabolism of an ion in body
a) copper b) cobalt c) mercury d) iron

94. The starting materials required for the synthesis of chlorphinramine are
a) 4-chlorobenzylcyanide & 2-bromopyridine b) 2-chlorobenzylcyanide & 4-bromopyridine
c) 4-chloropyridine & 2-bromobenzylcyanide d) 2-chloropyridine & 4-bromobenzylcyanide

95. An active metabolite of Sulindac is
a) methyl sulphate b) methyl sulphur monoxide c) sulphur dioxide d) methyl sulphide

96. Permanent deafness is the side effect of
a) amphotericin B b) streptomycin c) ofloxacillin d) erythromycin

97. The drug act by inhibiting an enzyme isoleucyl tRNA synthetase is
a) sodium fusidate b) cycloserine c) fosfomycin d) mupirocin

98. The drug act by inhibiting an enzyme DNA dependent RNA polymerase is
a) cephalaxin b) novobioscin c) ofloxacilin d) rifabutin

99. Clofazimine is the choice of drug in
a) tuberculosis b) epilepsy c) laprosy d) fungal infections

100. Nevirapine belongs to the class of anti viral drugs
a) protease inhibitor b) nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
c) non nuclease reverse transcriptase inhibitor d) nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor

101. The drug act by inhibiting an enzyme haeme polymerase is
a) mefloquine b) miconazole c) ethambutol d) atovaquone

102. A novel PPAR agonist helpful in relieving hyperglycemia is
a) metformin b) repaglinide c) rosiglitazone d) acetoxamide

103. Mifepristone is
a) estrogen antagonist b) estrogen agonist c) progesterone agonist d) progesterone antagonist

104. Match the following carbon numbers
1. Estradiol a. C19
2. Testosterone b. C18
3. Progesterone c. C21
4. cardenolides d. C23
a) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a b) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
c) 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b d) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d

105. Increased risk of artherosclerosis is associated with the decreased level of
a) HDL b) LDL c) VLDL d) triglycerides

106. 3,20-dione,11β,17α-hydroxy,6α-flouro,16α-methyl is
a) Paramethasone b) dexametasone c) Prednisolone d) Corticosterone

107. An ultra short acting barbiturate is
a) pentobarbital b) butabarbital c) Phenobarbital d) hexobarbitone

108. A vitamin possessing benzopyran basic ring is
a) vitamin E b) vitamin C c) vitamin D d) vitamin B6

109. Progabide act by
a) inhibits GABA reuptake in to nerve endings b) GABA agonist
c) inhibits GABA metabolizing enzymes d) GABA antagonist

110. Proglumide is useful in GIT problems, it is
a) gastrin antagonist b) neurokinin-1 antagonist
c) substance P antagonist d) prodrug of omeprazole

111. A precursor for the synthesis of nalidixic acid is
a) 2-amino pyridine b) 2-methyl quinoline c) 2-methyl pyridine d) 2-methyl isoquinoline

112. Probenicid-penicillin show drug interaction as
a) probenicid increases its metabolism b) probenicid decreases its absorption
c) probenicid increases its urinary excretion d) probenicid decreases its urinary excretion


113. A cardiovascular agent from Remijia padunculata is
a) quinine b) stropanthidine c) quinidine d) ouabain


114. All statements regarding the SAR of benzodiazepines are correct except one, identify



a) electron withdrawing group at C7 in ring A increases the potency
b) saturation of C=N bond in ring B reduces activity
c) if branched phenyl ring is replaced by heterocyclic ring, activity rises
d) C=O group at position 2 is essential for activity

115. An anticancer agent act by causing defected microtubules polymerization due to essential protein consumption inhibition is
a) topotecan b) paclitaxal c) vincristine d) etoposide

116. About the correct answer of above question one thing is true, identify
a) inhibits topoisomerase 1 b) inhibits topoisomerase 2
b) possesses cruciferous stomata d) is a diterpenoid

117. A drug that is agonist as well as antagonist to opioid receptor is
a) meperidine b) pentazocine c) propoxyphene d) fentanyl

118. COMT’s inhibitor useful in Parkinson diseases is
a) selegiline b) tolcapone c) deprenyl d) pergyline

119. Morphine under HCl treatment, 140’c/pressure gives
a) heroin b) codeine c) apomorphine d) phencyclidine




120. All statements about prodrug are correct except one
a) dipiveferine is the prodrug of adrenaline
b) bambuterol is the prodrug of salbutamol
c) hexamine is the prodrug releasing formaldehyde used in urinary tract infections
d) hemisuccinate prodrug of propanolol is resistant to esterases in liver

121. Ritodrine and metaraminol are
a) β2 agonist & α1 antagonist b) β1 agonist & β2 antagonist
c) β2 agonist & β1 agonist d) β2 agonist & β1 antagonist

122. An ester of veratric acid (3,4-dimethoxy benzoic acid) relaxing smooth muscles is
a) papaverine b) mebeverine c) tubocurarine d) dantrolene

123. Amrinone is a potent inotropic agent, act by
a) inhibiting Na-K ATPase b) inhibiting guanyl cyclase
c) inhibiting phosphodiasterase enzyme d) activates adenyl cyclase

124. Forskolin reduces intraocular pressure & also causes bronchodilation. it is a
a) sesquitepenoid b) sesterpenoid c) ditepenoid d) alkaloid

125. Propanolol can be assayed as per IP using
a) 0.01 m methanolic NaOH b) 0.1 m TBAH c) 0.1 m NaOH d) 0.1 m HCl

126. A drug that is metabolized by sulphotransferase to active N-O sulphate is
a) guanethidine b) minoxidil c) chlorthiazide d) losartan

127. Angiotensin 3 is a
a) heptapeptide b) nonapeptide c) decapeptide d) octapeptide

128. Find the odd one
a) phenindiones b) enoxapoarin c) protamine sulphate d) dicoumarol

129. Co-trimoxazole is the combination of trimethoprim with
a) sulphisoxazol b) sulphadiazene c) sulphamethoxazole d) proguanil

130. Streptomyces veneszulae is the source of
a) Tetracyclin b) Chloramphenicol c) Nystatin d) Mitomycin

131. Configuration of chloramphenicol most effective is
a) D-threo R,R b) D-threo S,R c) D-threo S,S d) D-threo R,S

132. A beta lactamase/suicide inhibitor having oxazolidine moitee is
a) tazobactam b) salbactam c) clavulinic acid d) imipenam


133. The starting materials required for the synthesis of chlorambucil are
a) P-aminophenylbutyric acid & ethylene oxide
b) P-aminophenylbenzoic acid & methylene oxide
c) P-aminophenylbenzoic acid & ethylene oxide
d) P-aminobenzylphenolic acid & ethylene oxide

134. An anticancer agent possessing Radiomimetic activity is
a) mitotane b) cisplatin c) procarbazine d) thiotepa

135. A folic acid derivative is
a) lomustine b) busalphan c) tegafur d) methotrexate

136. A schedule describing factory premises for ayurvedic drugs comes under
a) T b) U c) Q d) FF

137. A schedule describing labeling of drugs comes under
a) D b) E c) G d) M

138. A schedule describing contraceptives standards comes under
a) W b) X c) R d) Q

139. Application for wholesale of drugs under category C, C1 but not in X is applied in
a) 20 B b) 21 B c) 21 BB d) 20 BB

140. One is not an ex-officio member of pharmacy council of india. Identify
a) the director general of health services b) the drug controller of india
c) the director, pharmacy council of india d) the director of central drug laboratory

141. Michael’s index for grade B HEPA filter is
a) 6.5 b) 5.5 c) 4.5 d) 3.5

142. Identify an optically inactive amino acid
a) alanine b) valine c) glycine d) tryptophan

143. Paper chromatography is based upon the principle of
a) absorption b) adsorption c) partition d) ion exchange

144. SGOT is associated with
a) liver infection b) Myocardial infaction c) peptic ulcer d) kidney failure

145. Nitric oxide releasing amino acid is
a) citruline b) arginine c) cystine d) methionine

146. A precursor for cori cycle is
a) succinate b) pyruvate c) lactate d) glucose
147. All statements regarding gram negative bacteria are correct except
a) multi layered b) Tiechoic acid is absent
c) Lipopolysacchride content very high d) example is Vibrio cholrae

148. Gentamycin can be assayed using
a) Staphylococus epidermis b) Staphylococus aurecus
c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae d) Bacillus pumilus

149. Immunological product for rabies is available as
a) antiviral serum b) antibacterial serum c) antitoxin d) toxoid

150. Measles vaccine is tested for checking freedom from neuro virulance on
a) ox b) monkey c) horse d) pigTop of Form

151. Roye’s sachet is used for the chemical validation of sterilization technique
a) dry heat b) moist heat c) gaseous d) radiation

152. Microbe used for the biological validation of moist heat sterilization is
a) Clostridium sporugenes b) Bacillus pumulis
c) Pseudomonas dimnuta d) Serratia mercesense

153. Cold sterilisation is
a) contineous dry heat sterilisation uder UV radiation
b) continuous moist heat sterilization under UV radiation
c) continuous moist heat sterilization under IR radiation
d) continuous dry heat sterilization under IR radiation

154. The number of degree of temperature change to produce a ten fold change in D-value is called
a) F-value b) lethal value c) Z-value d) R-value

155. An ideal emulsion parentral should have a drop size of
a) 3 μm b) 5 μm c) 2 μm d) 7 μm

156. Pyrogens can be effectively expelled out from a parentral solution by methods
a) Dry heat at 250’c for 30 min b) Passing through membrane filter
c) Reverse osmosis d) All above

157. Maximum bubble pressure test is done for checking the efficiency of
a) parentrals b) aerosols c) HEPA filter d) membrane filter

158. One statement is correct regarding parentrals
a) High volume of distribution, high protein binding, high absorption
b) Low volume of distribution, high protein binding, low absorption
c) High volume of distribution, no protein binding, no absorption
d) High volume of distribution, no protein binding, high absorption

159. Pyrogens are
a) endotoxin & dec body temp b) exotoxin & inc body temp
c) endotoxin & inc body temp d) exotoxin & dec body temp

160. A solution was shaken with high stress, soon it converted to thick gel. The solution was
a) Pseudoplastic b) Plastic c) Dilatent d) Newtonian

161. Find the correct statement
a) Adhesive force are the forces between particles of same types
b) Cohesive forces are the forces between the particles of same types
c) Cohesive forces are the forces between two rough surfaces
d) Cohesive forces are the forces between the particles of different types

162. Match the following data of angle of repose & flow properties
1. Less than 25 a) very poor
2. 25-30 b) passable
3. 30-40 c) good
4. More than 40 d) excellent
a) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a b) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d c) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a d) 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a

163. Hausner index is
a) Poured density-tapped density b) Tapped density- poured density
c) Tapped density/ poured density d) Poured density/ tapped density

164. Match the following HLB values
1. 3-8 a) sodium lauryl sulphate
2. 7-9 b) detergent
3. 13-16 c) span
4. Greater than 16 d) wetting agents
a) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a b) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a c) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b d) 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a

165. Zeta potential of a solution can be
a) Positive b) Negative c) Zero d) All of above

166. Match the following
1. Viscosity a) stokes equation
2. Surface tension b) BET equation
3. Surface area c) stalagmometer
4. Surface diameter d) ostward viscometer
a) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b b) 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a c) 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c d) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a

167. The tablets with very high bioavailability is
a) Omeperazole chewable tablet b) Nitroglycerine sublingual tablet
c) Ammonium chloride troches d) Nemusilide dispensing tablet

168. A cardiac glycoside obtained from Stropanthus gratus or Acocanthera schimperi is
a) digoxin b) G-stropanthin c) ouabain d) b & c

169. Starting materials required for synthesis of Nifedipine are
a) Methyl acetoacetate & 2-nitrobenzoic acid
b) Methyl acetic acid & 2-nitrobenzaldehyde
c) Methyl acetoacetate & 2-nitrobenzaldehyde
d) Methyl acetoacetate & 2-nitrobenzoate

170. Calcium channel blocker with benzothiazipene ring is
a) nifedipine b) amlodipine c) verapamil d) diltiazem

171. Starting materials for synthesis of Propanolol are
a) α-napthol & epichlorohydrazine b) α-napthol & epichlorohydrin
c) β-napthol & epichlorohydrazine d) β-napthol & epichlorohydrin

172. Isoxuprine is a uterine relaxant. It is
a) β2 agonist b) β1 agonist c) β1 blocker d) β2 blocker

173. Guggulsterones are the steroids containing carbon numbers
a) 18 b) 19 c) 21 d) 24

174. An antidote for diazepam poisoning is
a) dessferioxime b) dimercaprol c) furosemide d) flumazenil

175. A substance that causes the problem of transplant rejection is
a) calcitrol b) colcalciferol c) calcineurin d) substance P

176. Heparin
a) inhibits antithrombin 3 b) activates antithrombin 3
c) inhibits vitamin k epoxide reductase d) activates vitamin k epoxide reductase

177. All are true about sulfinpyrazole except
a) COX inhibitor b) uricosuric agent c) antiplatelet d) anti fungal

178. An indicator chiefly used in iodimetery is
a) pot dichromate b) crystal violet c) carboxy methyl starch d) methylene blue

179. A compound used as a solvent in UV spectroscopy is
a) saturated aldehydes b) cyclohexane c) clyclohaxene d) alkyl halides

180. The value of Geminal coupling (Hz) ranges from
a) 0-15 b) 1-18 c) 5-18 d) 0-20


181. M/e ratio is dependent over
a) magnetic field b) voltage & velocity c) radius d) magnetic field, radius & voltage


182. Mclefferty arrangement is
a) migration of γ bond, breaking of β bond b) migration of β bond, breaking of γ bond
c) migration of α bond, breaking of β bond d) migration of γ bond, breaking of α bond

183. Match the following
1. Beer’s lambert law a. M/e= r²h²/2v
2. Fabrey parrot b. Λ=2ήb/m
3. Mass spectroscopy c. γH/2п
4. NMR frequency d. A=abc
a) 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a b) 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c c) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c d) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a

184. T- shaped trichomes are present in
a) artemisia & clove b) clove & feverfew c) feverfew & artemisia d) feverfew

185. The active constituent of plectranthus barbalus is
a) taxol b) baccatin c) forskholin d) bixin

186. Smell of Ferula foetida is due to
a) asaresinotannol b) umbelliferone c) disulphides d) umbellic acid

187. Gibberellic acid
a) induces beta amylase, hydrolytic enzymes & glucose formation
b) inhibits beta amylase, induces hydrolytic enzymes & glucose formation
c) induces alpha amylase, hydrolytic enzymes & glucose formation
d) induces alpha amylase, hydrolytic enzymes & inhibits gluconeogenesis

188. The precursor for cynogenetic glycosides is
a) squaline b) mevalonic acids c) shikmic acid d) phenylalanine

189. Lignified trichomes are present in
a) nux vomica b) digitalis purpurea c) digitallis thapsi d) belladonna

190. St. John wort is the common name of
a) senna b) rhubarb c) hypericum d) aloe

191. Type of calcium oxalate crystals present in Urgenia indica are
a) rosette b) cluster c) acicular d) raphids

192. A selective MAO B inhibitor is
a) deprenyl b) tranylcypromine c) phenelzine d) isocarboxazid

193. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor is
a) phenelzine b) pergyline c) paroxetine d) imipramine

194. The formation of esters from ketones is
a) bayer villager rearrangement b) backmann rearrangement
c) curtius rearrangement d) Hoffmann rearrangement

195. identify the named reaction


a) Perkin’s reaction b) Hell wolhard zensticky reaction
c) Riemer tiemann reaction d) Hoffmann bromamide reaction.

196. Find the odd one that is not the isoster of rest 3 options.
a) NH b) CH2 c) O d) CH3

197. Identify the named reaction



a) wolf kishner reduction b) kolbe reaction
c) friedel craft’s acylation d) schotten baumann reaction

198. Benorylate is a prodrug of
a) paracetamol & aspirin b) aspirin & sulindac c) nemiuslide d) aspirin & nemiuslide

199. Lysuride is
a) D1 agonist b) D2 agonist c) D1, D2 agonist d) antagonist of both

200. Find the odd one
a) clonidine b) methyl dopa c) yohimbine d) guanabenzBottom of Form

Answers :

1-c 2-b 3-d 4-a 5-a 6-d 7-b 8-c 9-a 10-b 11-a 12-d 13-b 14-b 15-c 16-b 17-a 18-c 19-b 20-a 21-a 22-c 23-c 24-d 25-b 26-b 27-c 28-b 29-b 30-c 31-b 32-c 33-d 34-d 35-a 36-a 37-a 38-c 39-d 40-c 41-c 42-b 43-d 44-c 45-c 46-b 47-b 48-b 49-c 50-a 51-a 52-b 53-c 54-c 55-c 56-c 57-a 58-c 59-d 60-a 61-b 62-b 63-a 64-b 65-a 66-b 67-b 68-d 69-c 70-c 71-a 72-a 73-b 74-c 75-b 76-b 77-b 78-a 79-d 80-d 81-a 82-a 83-a 84-b 85-d 86-d 87-b 88-b 89-b 90-b 91-b 92-b 93-a 94-a 95-d 96-b 97-d 98-d 99-c 100-c 101-a 102-c 103-d 104-d 105-a 106-a 107-d 108-a 109-b 110-a 111-c 112-d 113-c 114-c 115-b 116-d 117-b 118-b 119-c 120-b 121-c 122-a, b 123-c 124-c 125-c 126-b 127-a 128-c 129-c 130-b 131-a 132-c 133-a 134-b 135-d 136-a 137-c 138-c 139-b 140-c 141-c 142-c 143-c 144-b 145-b 146-c 147-a 148-a 149-a 150-b
151-c 152-a 153-d 154-c 155-a 156-d 157-d 158-c 159-c 160-c 161-b 162-a 163-c 164-b 165-d 166-d 167-b 168-d 169-c 170-d 171-b 172-a 173-c 174-d 175-c 176-b 177-d 178-c 179-b 180-d 181-d 182-a 183-b 184-c 185-c 186-c 187-c 188-c 189-a 190-c 191-d 192-a 193-c 194-a 195-c 196-d 197-d 198-a 199-c 200-c

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