GPAT Model paper -2
Q.1 what is the drug
(a) a chemical substance of known structure, mainly a nutrient or an essential dietary ingredient, which, when administered to a living organism, produces a biological effect.
(b) a chemical substance of known structure, other than a nutrient or an essential dietary ingredient, which, when administered to a living organism, produces a new biological function .
(c) a chemical substance of known structure, other than a nutrient or an essential dietary ingredient, which, when administered to a living organism, produces a biological effect.
(d) a chemical substance of known structure, mainly a nutrient or an essential dietary ingredient, which, when administered to a living organism, produces a new biological function.
Q.2 Drug bind to receptor, Assertion - Produce their response: Region-Due to efficacy
(a) Assertion is wrong& region is true
(b) Assertion is true & region is wrong
(c) both wrong (d) both true
Q.3 Spare receptor is
(a) Fallow occupation concept
(b) Not fallow occupation concept
(c) Not fallow two step model (d) none
Q.4 Target proteins on which drug act is
(a) Receptor (b) enzymes (c) carriers (d) all
Q.5 Hill-Langmuir equation described the
(a) Quantitative aspects of drug-receptor interactions
(b) Qualitative aspects of drug-receptor interactions
(c) Quantitative aspects of drug-drug interactions
(d) Qualitative aspects of drug-drug interactions
Q.6. Correct for Binding of drugs to receptors
(a)Binding of drugs to receptors necessarily obeys the Law of Mass Action.
(b)The higher the affinity of the drug for the receptor, the lower the concentration at which it produces a given level of occupancy.
(c)The same principles apply when two or more drugs compete for the same receptors; each has the effect of reducing the apparent affinity for the other.
(d) all
Q.7. Tetrodotoxin is-
(a) Voltage-gated sodium channels modulator
(b) Voltage-gated sodium channels blocker
(c) Voltage-gated sodium channels agonist
(d) Voltage-gated sodium channels antagonist
Q.8. choose the correct statement for the GPCRs
(a) Membrane location (b) Effectors is only ion channel (c) Effectors is only enzyme (d) all
Q.9 Type 3 receptor structures is -
(a) Oligomeric assembly of subunits surrounding central pore
(b) Monomeric dimericor structure comprising seven transmembrane helices
(c) Single transmembrane helix linking extracellular receptor domain to intracellular kinase domain
(d) Monomeric structure with separate receptor- and DNA-binding domains
Q.10. A person suffer from excessive lipolysis when he take mistakenly a poison
Assertion- Poison is pertussis and cholera toxin
Region- Prevent inactivation of GPCRs
(a) Assertion is wrong & region is true
(b) Assertion is true & region is wrong
(c) Both wrong (d) both true
Q.11 Intra Cellular Release of Ca++ ion increased by the (a) PLC (b) DAG (c) IP3 (d) IP4
Q.12. what is the role of IP4 Formed from IP3 during PI cycle-
(a) Absolutely faccillate Ca++ ion entry via plasma membrane
(b) unclear but may faccillate Ca++ ion entry via plasma membrane
(c) Activate PKa (d) Inactivate Pka
Q.13 Secondary messengers is except
(a) cGMP (b) cAMP (c) IP3 (d) PLC
Q.14. A drug which pka is 3.4 then rate of reabsorption of drug from renal tuble is-
(a) High (b) low (c) may be high or low (d) not predict
Q.15 Presystemic Metabolism also known as
(a) First pass metabolism (b) phase 1
(c) phase 2 (d)none
Q.16 N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine is
(a) non toxic metabolite of acetaminophen
( b) toxic prodrug of acetaminophen
(c) toxic metabolite of acetaminophen (d) none
Q.17 What is the unit of Michalies menten constant
(a) no unit (b) amount unit
(c) concentration unit (d) a&b
Q.18. when clearance is constant , the rate of drug elimination is -----------------proportional to drug concentration.
(a) indirectly (b) directly (c) not depend (d) none
Q.19 Drug concentrations are measured in plasma at 2-hour intervals following drug administration. The semilogarithmic plot of plasma concentration (Cp) versus time appears to indicate that the drug is eliminated from a single compartment by a first-order process with k = 0.173 hr–1) then half life of drug is
(a) 240 min (b) 180 min (c) 120 min (d) 60 min
Q.20 Here B is-
(a) agonist (b) partial agonist
(c) Inverse agonist (d) antagonist
Q.21 Phase 2 clinical trials investigate the
(a) safety (b) efficacy (c) verify efficacy
(d) Obtain additional data following approval
Q.22 All of the following are capable of initiating a signal transduction process EXCEPT
(A) Combination of an agonist with its receptor
(B) Combination of an antagonist with its receptor (C) Combination of a neurotransmitter with its receptor
(D) Combination of a hormone with its receptor
Q.23. Potency is determined by
(A) Affinity alone (B) Efficacy alone
(C) Affinity and efficacy
(D) Efficacy and intrinsic activity
Q.24. Following oral administration, a drug is absorbed into the body, wherein it can exert its action. For a drug given orally, the primary site of drug absorption is:
(A) The esophagus (B) The stomach
(C) The upper portion of the small intestine
(D) The large intestine
Q.25.The body has developed defense mechanisms that reduce the amount of foreign chemicals, such as drugs, that enter the body. One of the more prominent of these mechanisms is an efflux transport system that pumps some drugs back into the intestinal lumen following absorption into the enterocytes and that is responsible for the lack of complete
absorption of some drugs.This efflux transport system is:
(A) Facilitated diffusion (B) P glycoprotein
(C) Cytochrome P450 3A (D) Pinocytosis
Q.27. Reaction is-
(A) Phase 1 (B) Phase 2 (C) Phase 3 (D) Phase 4
Q.28. Which of the following CYP enzymes is associated with metabolism of the greatest number of drugs and thus most likely to be involved in drug–drug interactions?
(A) CYP3A4 (B) CYP2C9 (C) CYP2D6 (D) CYP2E1
Q.29. Frequently it is useful to consider the overall exposure of a person to a drug during the dosing interval. Which of the following pharmacokinetic parameters defines the exposure of a person to a drug?
(A) Cmax (B) Tmax (C) AUC (D) Half-life
Q.30 Agonist pleotropy shown by the-
(a) M- Receptor (b) D2- Receptor
(c) GABAB - Receptor (d) all
Q.31 All are GPCRS EXCEPT-
(a) 5-HT3- Receptor (b) PGS - Receptor
(c) Chemokine – Receptor (d) Opiod- Receptor
Q.32. cAMP pathway starts with the-
(a)Activation of adenyl cyclase (b) Activation of protein kinase
(c) Exchange of GDP with GTP in α – Units of G-protein
(d) Exchange of ATP with ADP in α – Units of G-protein
Q.34 Blood Glycogen rises when-
(a) cAMP increases (b) cAMP Decreases
(c) IP3/ DAG increase (d) A&C
Q.35 Drug which produce opposite effect to agonist is called-
(a) Antagonist (b) Partial agonist
(c) Invese agonist (d) Blocker
Q.36 Iproniazid is the-
(a) Antitubercular drug (b) MOA-A inhibitors
(c) Anticancer drug (d) Antileprotic drug
Q.37 Occupation of receptor is governed by the-
(a) Affinity (b) Intrinsic activity (c) Confermation chages (d) all
Q.38 Intrinsic activity for DMCM is-
(a) 0----(-1) (b) 0-----(+1) (c) 0 (d) 1
Q.39 Correct sequence by which the drug work-
(a) Binding to receptor----- confermation change---- Transducer steps ----response
(b) Binding to receptor----- confermation change ----response---- Transducer steps
(c) Binding to receptor----- Transducer steps ----response--- confermation change
(d) Binding to receptor----- chemical change---- Transducer steps ----response
Q.40 Albumin is the -
(a) Silent receptor (b) nuclear receptor (c) Protien channel (d) A& C
Q.41 Choose incorrect statement when drug is given by oral route
(a) Slower action not suitable for emergency
(b) Streptomycin is not absorbed by oral route
(c) Cannot used for uncooperative patient (d) None
Q.42 A patient take combination of aspirin and ciprofloxacin, during the testing of urine, the urine was found alkaline, in this condition which drug is back diffuse in the kidney tubules
(a) Aspirin (b) Ciprofioxacin (c) both (d) none
Q.43 Find the volume of distribution of drug if plasma concentration of drug is 50 Mg/L and the totel drug in body is 100Mg
(a) 2L (b) 20ML (c) 2000ML (d) 50ML
Q.44 Which of the following enzyme responsible for the conversion of the codeine to morphine and this is inhibited by
(a) CYP2E1, Cispride (b) CYP2D6, Quinidine
(c) CYP2C19 ,Astemizole (d) CYP2C8/9 , Diltiazim
Q.45 Benzopyren found in cigratte smoke , which is responsible for the
(a) Inhibition of CYP1A isoenzyme
(b) Inhibition of CYP3A isoenzyme
(c) Induction of CYP1A isoenzyme
(d) Induction of CYP2B1 isoenzyme
Q.46 A doctor have prescribed paracetamol to the patient , but by mistak patient take enzyme inducer with them, what would happened
(a) Increase intensity of response
(b) Increase duration of action
(c) Toxicity (d) both a & b
Q.47 Probenacid prolong the duration of action of penicillin and ampicilline by
(a) By reducing rate of metabolism (b) By increasing plasma protein binding
(c) By prolonging absorption from absorption site (d) By reducing rate of excretion
Q.48 Which of the following is example of non competitive inhibitors
(a) Physostigmine (b) Allopurinol
(c) Theophylline (d) Carbidopa
Q.49 Choose correct one for the non equilibrium type enzyme inhibition
(a) Km increase ,Vmax decreases
(b) Km constant , Vmax decrease
(c) Km decrease , Vmax constant
(d) Km decrease ,Vmax increase
Q.50Choose correct example for supra additive combination
(a) Acetylcholine & Physostigmine (b) Aspirin & paracetmol
(c) Ephedrine & Theophylline (d) Nitrous acid & Ether
Q.51.Which of the following statement is true-
(a)Determination of pKa performed by spectral shift or visible spectroscopy
(b)Unionized form is greatly absorbed than the ionized form
(c)Drug with low pKa value,unionized form is present in the stomach but ionized in the intestine (d)All
Q.52.Flavouring agent, who is used in the formulation of oral liquids, gives the bitter test-
(P)Wild Cherry(Q)Liquorice (R)Mint(S)Vanilla
(a)PQ (b) RS (c)PR (d)QS
Q.53.Ascorbic acid is an antioxidant functioning
(P)Reducing agent (Q)Oxidising agent (R)Synergistic (S)Chelates
(a)PQ (b) RS (c)PR (d)QS
Q.54.Which statement is false about the ASPARTAME
(a)200 times more sweet than sucrose
(b)No bitter after test
(c)High water solubility and stable at wide pH range
(d)Not recomonded for the pregnant or lacting woman
Q.55.Sterile water for injection is-
(a)Not contain any antmicrobial agent (b)Must be pyrogen free
(c)Filled in single dose container (d)All statement are true
Q.56.Most commonly used non aquous vehicle for sterile product is
(a)Corn oil (b)Almond oil (c)Peanut oil (d)Sesame oil
Q.57.Function of tonocity modifier for the parenterals-
(a)Minimize tissue damaze and ↓ irritation (b)↓hemolysis of blood cells
(c)Prevent electrolyte imbalance (d)All
Q.58. Hybridoma technology is widely used for producing
a. Callus cultures b. Organ cultures
c. Monoclonal antibodies d. All the above
Q.59.Polyoxyethylene sorbiton is the example of a surfactant which is-
(a)Non ionic (b)Cationic
(c)Anionic (d)Amholytic
Q.60.Which of the following statement is true about the MC-
(a)Soluble in hot water but insoluble in cold water
(b)Soluble in cold water but insoluble in hot water
(c)Insoluble in all conditions
(d)Highly soluble in organic solvents
Q.61.For the preparation of W/O/W type multiple emulsion,the correct scheme of the addition of emulsifiers-
(a)Span→tween (b)Tween→span
(c)Both (d) None
Q.62.Plastcizer for the manicure preparation is-
(a)Caster oil (b)Cellulose nitrate (c)Butyl lactate (d)No plasticizer used
Q.63.In the preparation of liposome,material which leads to rigidity is-
(a)Cholesterol (b)Phosoholipid (c)PVP (d)PLGA
Q.64.Matarial which is most commonly used for the enteric coating of tablets-
(a)PVP (b)CAP (c)Acrylates (d)Accacia
Q.65.If the drug is mois sensitive,binding agent utilize in this condition-
(a)CMC (b)Gelatin (c)HPMC (d)Starch paste
Q.66.Titanium di oxide used in the capsule coat as
(a)Presrevatives (b)Plasticizer (c)Opacifier (d)Inhance chewability
Q.67.Coating material which is water insoluble used in the microencapsulation-
(a)PVP (b)Polymethacrylate (c)CAP (d)PVA
Q.68.Chitosan is a
(a)Natural phospholipid (b) Natural polysachharide (c) Natural peptide (d)Synthetic hormone
Q.69.DMSO function as-
(a)An emulsifying agent (b)A suspending agent
(c)A preservative (d)A penetration enhancer
Q.70.Which of the following are natural hydrocolloids-
(P)Hectorite (Q)Attapulgite
(R)CMC (S)Carbopols
(a)PQ (b) RS (c)PR (d)QS
Q.71. Assertion (A): Sorbitol, ethanol and glycerin act as cosolvent.
Reason (R): They are reduces the interfacial tension
(a)Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct reason for [A]
(b)Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct reason for [A]
(c)Both [A] and [R] are false
(d)[A] is true but [R] is false
Q.72.The term----has been used to in the sense of increase in solubility in the water of various substances due to the presence of large amount of additives-
(a)Cosolvancy (b)Complexation (c)Hydrotrophy (d)Solublization
Q.73.Which of the following is neutral preservatives-
(P)Benzyl alcohol (Q)Chlorbutanol
(R)Phenol (S)Nitromersol
(a)PQ (b) RS (c)PR (d)QS
Q.74.Tween 60 is
(a)Polyoxyethylene (20) sorbitone monolaurate (b)Polyoxyethylene (20) sorbitone monopalmitate (c)Polyoxyethylene (20) sorbitone monostearate (d) Polyoxyethylene (20) sorbitone monooleate
Q.75.Accacia is used as-
(a)Suspending agent (b) Emulsifier (c) Microcapsule wall material (d)All
Q.76.Role of Dextrin is
(P)Stabilizer (Q) Emulsifier
(R)Binder (S) Gelling agent
(a)PQ (b) RS (c)PR (d)QS
Q.77.NDGA is
(a)Antioxidant (b) Viscosity modifier
(c) Vehicle (d) Filler
Q.78.In the tablet formulation MCC is used as
(a)Glidant (b) Antiadherent (c)Binder (d)All
Q.79.Controlled release excipient for tablet is
(P)Mg.Al.Silicates (Q) Starch
(R)PVP (S)HPMC
(a)PQ (b) RS (c)PR (d)QS
Q.80.Binding/granulating agent who show the highest strength for the tablet formulatin
(a)Acacia mucilage (b)Glucose syrup
(c)Povidone (d)Sucrose syrup
Q.81.FD&C color yellow 5 commonly known as
(a)Erythrosine (b)Indigotine
(c)Sunset Yellow (d)Tetrazine
Q.82.Commanly used controlled release excipient which is pH dependent
(a)CAP (b)PLGA (c)CMC (d)HPMC
Q.83. Sorbitol used in soft gelatin capsules as
a) Viscosity modifier b) Gel Strength modifier
c) To alter the Cohesive strength d) Plasticizer
Q.84.Gelatin is a hydrolysed product of
a) Shellac b) Pectin c) Collagen d) Tannin
Q.85.What is the active ingredient present in mandle’s throat paint-
a) Manganese b) Iodine c)Iron d) KI
Q.86.Which of the following is incorporated to overcome crystallization or cap locking of simple syrup?
a)Alcohol b)Glycerin c)Ether d) Purified water
Q.87.What is the HLB value for sodium lauryl sulphate?
a) 10 b) 40 c) 25 d) 15
Q.88. Match the following HLB scale
P) 3 – 8 1) Anti foaming agent
Q) 3 – 1 2) W/O emulgent
R) 7 – 9 3) Wetting agent
S) 16 – 18 4) O/W emulgent
T) 8 – 16 5) Solubilizing agent
a) P – 2 b) P – 5 c) P – 3 d) P – 2
Q – 4 Q – 4 Q – 1 Q – 1
R – 1 R – 2 R – 5 R – 3
S – 3 S – 3 S – 2 S – 5
T – 5 T - 1 T – 4 T – 4
Q.89. Anhydrous lanolin is also called as
a) Yellow soft paraffin b) Wool fat
c) Bees wax d) Cholesterol
Q.90.Which of the following is used for the lubrication of moulds in the preparation cocoa butter suppositories by fusion method?
a) Mineral oil b) Propylene glycol
c) Cetyl alcohol d) Magnesium silicate
Q.91.The following solvent is a water immiscible non aqueous solvent
(a) Dioxalones (b) PEG 400
(c) Isopropyl myristate (d) Butylene glycol
Q.92. The indicator used in leakage test for sterile products
(a) crystal violet (b) methyl red
(c) 0.5 to 1 % methylene blue (d)None
Q.93. Propellent 152 a is-
(a) Trichloro di fluoro methane (b) difluoro ethane
(c) trichloro mono fluoro Methane (d)Butane
Q.94. Which of the following is an emollient used in the hand cream preparations
a. Lanolin b. Cholesterol
c. Lecithin d. All the above
Q.95.Which of the following agents reduces the surface charges on the wet hair and to maintain the oily film present naturally on the hair
a. Clarifying agents b. Stabilizing agents
c. Conditioning agents d. Chelating agents
Q.96. Which of the following substance enhances the penetration of drug in oral transmucosal drug delivery systems?
P. Dimethyl sulfoxide Q. Glycerin
R. Propylene glycol S. Carbopol
a. P, Q b. Q, R c. R, S d. P, S
Q.97. During translation AUG codes for methionine at
a. The start of polypeptide chain
b. The end of polypeptide chain
c. The start as well as the interior of polypeptide chain
d. The end well as the exterior of polypeptide chain
Q.98.Which of the following vitamin has a deodrant property
a. Vitamin C b. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin D d. Vitamin B complex
Q.99. Anti codon region is an important part of the structure of
a. m – RNA b. DNA c. t- RNA d. t – RNA
Q.100. The lethal effect of CO is due to
a. H2O solubility
b. Ability to combine with haemoglobin
c. Vapour pressure d. Ability to form CO2 easily
Q.101.Following Which statement is correct for auxochrome-
(a)All auxochrome have one or more non bonding pair of electrons
(b)It is group which itself does not act as a chromophore
(c)Extended conjugation has been responsible for bathochromic shift
(d)All above statement are correct
Q.102.Fundamental theory of IR absorption spectroscopy
(a) f2 =I /4 π2.K/µ (b)f= 1/2π K/µ
(C ) f = 2π. K/µ (d) none
Q.103.Fabry perot filter used in visible spectroscopy to achieved monochromatic light based on
(a)Absorption (b)refraction
(c)Interference (d) defraction
Q.104.photoemissive material used in u V detection to generate photo electron when visible/ UV light incident on detector
(a)potassium (b) cesium (c) AgO (d) all
Q.105.in which radiation detection system of uV spectroscopy multiplication of primary photoelectrons
(a)Barrier layer cells (b)photronic cells
(c)photoemmisive cells (d) none
Q.106.unit of wave number is
(a) Ao (b) CM-1 (c) Kayser (d) b and c
Q.107.which type of transition are present in UV spectroscopy
(a) π to π* (b) n to σ* (c) n to π* (d) all (e) a & c
Q.108.Which one is example of vacuum UV spectroscopy
(a) CH3 CO CH3 (b) C6H5-NH2
(c) Cyclohexane (d) B & C
Q.109.Calculate the absorption maxiama for UV/ visible for following structure
(a)398 nm (b) 360 nm (c) 362 nm (d) 353 nm
Q.110.Calculate the absorption maxiama for UV/ visible for following structure
(a)235 nm (b) 253 nm (c) 292 nm (d) 353 nm
Q.111.Number of ring residue present in following structure
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2
Q.112.According to woodward fieser rure for polyenes basic value for λmax calculation to the following structure is
(a) 215 nm (b) 317 nm (c) 245 nm (d)253 nm
Q.113.Functional group detectin performed by
(a) colorimetry (b) NMR Spectroscopy
(c) IR Spectroscopy (d) 13C NMR Spectroscopy
Q.114.Vibration motion in infra red taking place in which range
(a) 1.2 to 2.5 µ (b) 1.5 to 15 µ (c) 25 to 300 µ (d) this motion not present in IR region
Q.115.Base peak is related to
(a) Raman spectra (b) FTIR (c) MALDY TOF (d) Phosphorometry
Q.116.Lucas reagent is used to differentiate the primary, secondary, and tertiary monohydric alcohol is
(a) ZnCl2 /conc HCl (b) anhydrous ZnCl/Conc HCl (c) Anhydrous ZnCl2 /Conc HCl (d) none
Q.117Hybridization of carbene ( ¯CH2 ) may be
(a) SP2 (b) SP (c) SP3 (d) a & b
Q.118.Correct relative order of forces present in covalent compound
(a) H.B.>Dipole-2 forces>Vander waal’s forces
(b) Dipole-2 forces > Vander waal’s forces > H.B.
(c) Vander waal’s forces > H.B. > Dipole-2 forces
(d) H.B. = Dipole-2 forces < Vander waal’s forces
Q.109.No bond resonance is also know as
(a) mesomerism (b) Hyperconjugation
(c) Baker and Nathan effect (d) b & c
Q.120.Relative acidic character of following compounds
(a) H2O >ROH> CHºCH> CH2=CH2 > CH3- CH3
(b) ROH > CHºCH >CH2 =CH2>CH3- CH3 > H2O
(c) CHºCH > CH2 =CH2 >CH3- CH3> H2O> ROH
(d)CH3-CH3>CHºCH>CH2 =CH2 >CH3-CH3> H2O
Q.121.In which of the following electronic displacement is permanent in nature
(a) Inductive effect (b) Hyperconjugative effect
(c) mesomeric effect (d) all
Q.122.Which of the following electronic displacement is responsible for Polarisability in the covalent compounds
(a) Indutomeric effect (b) Electromeric effect
(c) a & b (d) resonance effect
Q.123. Stability order of the carbonium ions is
(a) Cyclopropyl methyl carbocations>C6H5CH2+ > Allyl carbocations> Alkyl cabonium ions > Vinyl carbocations
(b) C6H5CH2+ > Cyclopropyl methyl carbocations > Allyl carbocations> Alkyl cabonium ions > Vinyl carbocations
(c)C6H5CH2+> Allyl carbocations > Alkyl cabonium ions>Vinyl carbocations>Cyclopropyl methyl carbocations
(d) C6H5CH2+ > Allyl carbocations> Cyclopropyl methyl carbocations > Alkyl cabonium ions > Vinyl carbocations
Q.124.Which of the following number of Pi electrons combination according to Huckel rule for aromaticity
(a) 2, 4, 6, 8 (b) 2, 6, 10, 14,
(c) 4, 8, 12, 16 (d) 2, 6, 4, 12
Q.125. C6H5OH + CHCl3 + ? Þ Salicyaldehyde
(a) Aqueous KOH (b) Alcoholic KOH
(c) can be a & b (d) Li
Q.126. Most intense peak in mass spectroscopy is
(a) parent peak (b) base peak
(c) both have similar intense peak
(d) metastable peak
Q.127.Wavelength range of X- Rays is
(a) 1-100 A0 (b) 1-10 A0(c)10- 100A0(d)1-10 CM-1
Q.128. Crystal structure of water floats in the water due to low density of crystal structure exits in form of
(a) Tetramer form (b) Pentamer form
(c) Hexamer form (d) None
Q.129. correct order of hydrogen bonding
(a) HF::::HF > OH::::::: OH > NH::::::NH
(b) NH::::::NH > HF::::HF > OH::::::: OH
(c) OH::::::: OH > NH::::::NH > HF::::HF
(d) HF::::HF = OH::::::: OH > NH::::::NH
Q.130.Woodward fieser rules for alkenes is valid up to number of conjugated double bonds is
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) no any criteria like this
Q.131. Stability order of carbanions is
(a) 10 > 20 > 30 (b) 10 = 20 > 30
(c) 20 > 30 > 10 (d) 30 > 20 > 10
Q.132. Mull technique is a method of sampling belong to-
(a) Mass spectroscopy (b) IR(c) NMR (d) X – Rays
Q.133. Neutral electrophile is
(a) PCl5 (b) SF6 (c) NO2+ (d) all (e) a&b
Q.134. Carbylamine is a characteristics reaction in the presence of CHCl3 & Alcoholic KOH to produce isocyanide
(a) secondary amine (b) primary amine
(c) phenol (d) ether
Q.135. charged electrophiles are
(a) H+ (b) NH4+ (c) NO2+ (d) all
Q.136.Homolytic cleavage of organic compounds is responsible for
(a)Odd electron species (b) nucleophiles generation (c)free radicals generation(d)electrophiles generation
Q.137. Forbidden transition in uv spectroscopy is due to
(a) π to π* (b) n to σ* (c) n to π* (d) b & c
Q.138.In colorimetry transition take place from to
(a)Ground to exited (b)Boding orbiatal to antibonding orbital (c) LUMO to HOMO (d) all
Q.139. A colorimetry sample solution color is blue which color of filter should be suitable for filter
(a) Orange (b) Blue (c) Red
(d) any color which is transparent to visible range
Q.140.Grating use as monochromator in IR spectrum is made of
(a) Glass (b) Quartz (c) fused silica (d) NaCl
Q.141 Choose the odd one
(a) Gibberlline (b) Auxin (c) Ethylene (d) Zeatin
Q.142 Glycerrhiza is modified
(a) Runner (b) Stolen (c) Offset (d) Sucker
Q.143 Java cinnamon has ----------------- bark
(a) Recurved (b) Quill shaped
(c) Compound Quill (d) None
Q.144 Choose the odd one with respect to modification to fruit
(a) Strawberry (b) marking fruit
(c) Rose (d) Apple
Q.145 Warty out growth from micropyle is known as caruncle found in
(a) cardamom (b) Calotropis
(c) Colchicum (d) Castor
Q.146 Inulin is polysaccharide, it is ------------- in water
(a) soluble (b) Insoluble
(c) Partially soluble (d) none
Q.147 Tannin, resin, and latex are----------------- product
(a) Reserve (b) secretory
(c) Excretory (d) metabolite
Q.148 Picrolonic acid is used to identify
(a) Terpenoid (b) Alkaloid (c) Steroid (d) All
Q.149 Osazone formation test is used to identify
(a) Protein (b) Steroid
(c) Glycoside (d) None
Q.150 Renin is a
(a)Proteolytic enzyme (b) Mucolytic enzyme
(c) Amylolytic enzyme (d) None
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