GPAT Model Paper -1
1.. Minute opening of the tubular structure playing an important role in germination of seeds is
1.. Minute opening of the tubular structure playing an important role in germination of seeds is
a) Arillode b) Caruncle c) Micropyle d) Hilum
2. Polyuronic acids are the salts of
a) Sod & calcium b) Calcium & magnesium c) Sodium & Magnesium d) Potasium & Calcium
3. Type of endorphins helpful in relieving pain are
a) alpha b) gamma c) delta d) beta
4. Opium alkaloids are derived from
a) Tyrosine b) phenylalanine c) ornithine d) mevalonic acid
5. Number of Hydroxyl groups present in Pyrogallal are
a) three b) two c) four d) one
6. “Liliaceae” is the family of
a) Ginseng b) Bitter almond c) Cascara d) red squill
7. During Nitric acid test of aloe, color obtained was Brownish-green. variety of aloe is
a) Zanzibar b) Cape c) Curacao d) Socotrine
8. Carsara contains Cascarosides, which are reported to have
a) O-glycosides b) C-glycosides c) both a & b d) N-glycosides
9. All statements about Digitalis thapsi are false except
a) it is 3 times more potent than Digitalis Purpurea
b) does not possess calcium oxalate crystals
c) presence of non-glandular trichomes
d) absence of cuticle
10. Enzymatic biotransformation of pervoside from thevetia gives
a) digitoxin b) digoxin c) encordin d) neriifolin
11. All microscopical statements are true for “Rattlesnake root” except
a) starch grains are present b) absence of phloem fibres
c) medullary rays are lignified d) presence of diarch primary xylem
12. Vanillin shows all IR peaks (cm-1) in the region below, except one
a) 1050-1150 (COR stretch) b) 1720 (C=O stretch) c) 3650 (OH stretch) d) 1650 (NH bend)
13. A test that differentiate between pale catechu & black catechu is
a) vanillin & Hydrochloric acid gives Pinkish red color
b) green fluorescence with petroleum ether & ethanolic sodium hydroxide
c) reddish brown fluorescence with chloroform
d) Brownish red color with ferric chloride.
14. Chief active constituent present in Anethum graveolens is
a) Fenchone b) carvone c) anethole d) cineole
15. Abietic acid present in colophony is the salt of
a) calcium b) potassium c) copper d) sodium
16. Under Deuterium lamp, Rhapontic rhubarb will give color
a) deep violet b) deep blue c) black d) yellowish
17. Type of calcium oxalate crystals present in Eugenia caryophillus are
a) Cluster b) Rossette c) acicular d) prismatic
18. In Jalap, Convolvulin on hydrolysis yields rhamnoconvolvulic acid, exogenic acid &
a) atropine b) abietic acid c) tiglic acid d) umbellic acid
19. Number of basic isoprene units present in Bixin are
a) six b) eight c) ten d) five
20. Type of steroisomer cinchonine is
a) + b) - d) ± d) optically inactive
21. Characterstic odour of cocaine is due to
a) methyl benzoate b) methyl salicyalte c) vanillin d) asiragalin
22. Artemisinin is a sesquiterpene lactone from Artemisia annua, should contain active constituent not less than
a) 0.75 % b) 1 % c) 0.1% d) 0.05 %
23. All statements are true for Bromelain except
a) inhibits COX enzyme b) mixture of proteolytic enzymes
c) Source is Serratia bromosus d) family is bromeliaceae
24. A water soluble component from Claviceps purpurea is
a) ergocornine b) ergocristine c) ergotamine d) ergometrine
25. Murexide test is done for the presence of caffine, uses potassium chlorate & Hydrochloric acid treatment with the drug gives characterstic
a) yellow color b) purple color c) purple ppt d) green ppt
26. During friability studies, tablets are supposed to be best that lose weight less than
a) 1.3 % b) 0.5-1 % c) 5 % d) 2-3 %
27. Find the sparingly soluble category of 1 mg drug tested for its solubility
a) 100-1000 ml b) 10-30 ml c) 30-100 ml d) more than 1000 ml
28. A tablet excipient that is disintegrant as well as binder
a) acacia b) PVP c) PEG d) carnoba wax
29. A diluent used in vitamin tablets is
a) anhydrous lactose b) mannitol c) calcium phosphate d) cellulose
30. Veegum “HV” is
a) o/w b) w/o c) both d) none
31. All Ranges of Tablet efficiency of a sugar coated tablet are acceptable except one
a) 61 % b) 57 % c) 67 % d) 73 %
32. Kaolin, cocoa powder are used in one step of tablet sugar coating
a) seal coating b) syrup coating c) sub coating d) polishing
33. A problem of tablet coating that can be relieved by replacing low melting point substances with higher melting point substances is
a) orange peel effect b) lamination c) blistering d) picking
34. Hard gelatin capsule size possessing lesser volume (ml) is of size
a) 00 b) 0 c) 2 d) 5
35. Propellent number of dichlorotetrafluoroethane is
a) 114 b) 14 c) 112 d) 11
36. All statements are wrong regarding DOT test, except
a) is the evaluation test of aerosols
b) is “Di octyl thalate” test, very important test carried out for HEPA filter effeciency
c) is done at -25’F
d) best technique to produce class 100 room
37. All equations best suits to Fisher subsieve sizer for surface area determination except
a) BET equation b) Poiseuille’s equation c) stokes equation d) kozeny carman equation
38. Critical micelle concentration (CMC) gets decreased by
a) branching of hydrocarbon chain b) putting double bond in hydrocarbon chain
c) increasing hydrocarbon chain length d) adding OH substitution to the hydrocarbon chain
39. Find the deflocculated sedimentation volume of paracetamol suspension in water. initial volume was 100 ml, final volume was find to be 44 ml (degree of flocculation is 1.5)
a) 2.9 b) 1.2 c) 0.90 d) 0.29
40. Arrange the following processes in order of their formation
a) Dissolution, disintegration, deaggregation, absorption
b) Disintegration, dissolution, deaggregation, absorption
c) Disintegration, deaggregation, dissolution, absorption
d) Dissolution, deaggregation, disintegration, absorption
41. The drug with faster absorption is
a) Phenytoin b) Barbiturates c) Aspirin d) Imipramine
42. The drug with high protein binding is
a) A parentral solution b) Phenytoin tablet given in epilepsy
c) Nitroglycerine sublingual tablet d) Di sodium cromoglycate soft gelatin capsule
43. The drug which is not excreted rapidly in urine is
a) Di sodium chromoglycate b) mecamylamine c) guanithidine d) loperamide
44. Two statements are true regarding Urinary excretion data
1. Study is supposed to best if at least 5 half lives are determined
2. Study is supposed to best if at least 7 half lives are determined
3. At least 10% drug should be excreted in urine in changed/metabolite form
4. At least 10% drug should be excreted in urine in unchanged form
a) 1 & 3 b) 2 & 3 c) 2 & 4 d) 1 & 4
45. 500 mg Paracetamol was given to a patient. First order elimination rate constant is 10 and clearance is 50 ml/min. Find the plasma drug concentration.
a) 10 mg b) 50 mg c) 100 mg d) 5 mg
46. An agent helpful in retention of powder over face is
a) glycerine b) lanolin c) butyl stearate d) lactose
47. A poly uronic acid derivative from Astragalus gummifer is
a) gum acacia b) tragacanth c) Bentonite d) sodium alginate
48. Kaolin is the silicate of
a) magnesium b) aluminium c) fluorine d) both a & b
49. Pearlscent agents & sequestrants are added in the formulation of
a) nail laquers b) depilatories c) shampoo d) hair gels & lotion
50. Polyoxyl stearates esters of polyoxyethylene glycols are named
a) macrogols b) spans c) tweens d) poloxalkols
51. Identify the aprotic solvent
a) chloroform b) triethylamine c) ferric chloride d) ammonia
52. An indicator used in Volhard method of precipitation reaction is
a) pot permagnate b) ferric ammonium sulphate c) pot dichromate d) crystal violet
53. All are Reference electrode except
a) silver silver chloride electrode b) saturated calomel electrode
c) glass membrane electrode d) standard hydrogen electrode
54. Identify the demasking agent
a) iodide b) hydrazine c) formaldehyde d) cyanide
55. A graph between current and active ions in solution (ml) keeping voltage constant is plotted in
a) polarography b) conductometery c) amperometery d) potentiometry
56. 0.001Å-0.005Å range is exhibited by type of rays
a) x-rays b) radiowave c) microwave d) gamma rays
57. Near IR region ( cm-1) is
a) 12500-4000 b) below 667 c) 4000-667 d) 1250
58. 11-cis retinal shows an alkene (CH bending) range at cm-1
a) 900 b) 3030 c) 600 d) 1350
59. NMR delta value of NH2 group is
a) 2-3 b) 1-2 c) 6-8 d) 1-5
60. detector used in IR spectroscopy is
a) Bolometer b) Gieger muller counter c) PMT d) flame ionization detector
61. In interference filter, high dielectric constant films are suspended between two parallel rodes, these rodes are made up of
a) gold b) silver c) Silicon oxide d) calcium fluoride
62. A term best describe for a decrease in the intensity of absorption is
a) hypsochromic shift b) hypochromic shift c) bathochromic shift d) hyperchromic shift
63. Find the lambda max value for the compound given below
a) 245 nm b) 240 nm c) 275nm d) 270 nm
64. Find the lambda max value for the compound given below
a) 240 nm b) 256 nm c) 270 nm d) 275 nm
65. Nujol oil is used a sampling technique in
a) IR b) UV c) mass spectroscopy d) NMR
66. Unit of chemical shift is
a) tesla b) PPM c) hertz d) dyne/cm
67. All are the solvent used in H-NMR except
a) DMSO b) chloroform c) carbon disulphide d) carbon tetrachloride
68. λ=2ήb/m is the equation of
a) IR b) NMR c) mass d) UV
69. In mass spectroscopy, graph is plotted between
a) m/e ratio vs velocity of ions b) m/e ratio vs magnetc field
c) m/e ratio vs intensities of ions d) m/e ratio vs potential difference among ions
70. Number of H-NMR signals given by Ethyl acetate is
a) 4 b) 2 c) 3 4) 5
71. All functional groups decreases fluorescence, except
a) NH2 b) NO2 c) COOH d) bromine
72. Amide-1 band (C=O stretch) is observed at cm-1
a) 1650 b) 1725 c) 1740 d) 1590
73. A coating substance that produces mid IR range is
a) KBr coated zirconium b) KBr coated germanium
c) polyethylene terpthalate d) polyoxyethylene barium
74. Spraying agent used for the detection of lipids in chromatographic plate is
a) diphenyl hydrazine b) bromocresol green c) bromophenol blue d) aniline phthalate
75. Gradient technique is the technique of elution that includes
a) changing adsorbent for different substances b) changing solvent composition
c) keeping solvent system same throughout the process d) rising evaporating temperature76. Technique used to improve the process of separation by the column/detector in gas chromatography is done by
a) derivitisation by treatment with tetramethyl silane (TMS)
b) making the component more volatile
c) increasing active sites on solid support
d) decreasing the thickness/amount of liquid film on solid support
77. Bragg’s law associated with X-ray diffraction studies is
a) mλ=d (sin i±sin r) b) 2d sin θ=nλ c) x/m=kc d) ν=γBo/2П
78. Kernicterus is caused by
a) dapsone b) chloramphenicol c) prednisolone d) phenytoin
79. Beta carbolines are the
a) partial agonist of benzodiazepines b) pure agonist of benzodiazepines
c) pure antagonist of benzodiazepines d) inverse agonist of benzodiazepines
80. An anticholinesterase mostly preferered in myasthenia gravis is
a) physostigmine b) pilocarpine c) pyridostigmine d) neostigmine
81. Vasamicol act by
a) blocking choline transport in to storage vesicles b) blocking choline uptake in nerves
c) blocks releases of Ach from nerve endings d) stimulates releases of Ach from nerve endings
82. Phenylepherine is an
a) α1 agonist b) β1 agonist c) α1 antagonist d) α2 agonist
83. Bretylium
a) prevent the release of NA from nerve endings b) displaces NA from nerve endings
c) stimulates the release of NA from nerve endings d) reduces the formation of NA
84. Ondansetron is
a) 5-HT agonist b) 5-HT antagonist c) AT1 agonist d) H1 antagonist
85. A prostaglandin useful in inducing abortion is
a) carboprost b) misoprostol c) alprostadil d) dinoprostone
86. All are vasodilator except
a) nitric oxide b) bradykinin c) captopril d) histamine
87. An effective antidote in cyanide poisoning is
a) pralidoxime b) erythrityl trinitrate c) atropine d) flumazenil
88. Hypertrichosis is the side effect of
a) sildenafil b) minoxidil c) diazoxide d) phenytoin
89. Most potent steroisomer of warfarin is
a) R b) S c) Racemic d) none
90. Colestipol is a hypolipidimic agent, act by
a) inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase b) breaking cholesterol in to bile acids
c) catalyse the hydrolysis of triglycerides d) inhibit the synthesis of cholesterol
91. Flecainide is an antiarrhythmic drug, comes under the category
a) class 1B b) class 1C c) class 2 d) class 4
92. Anti-platelet effect of aspirin is mediated by inhibiting
a) prostaglandins b) thromoxanes c) leucoteines d) epoprostinol
93. Wilson’s disease is caused due to the abnormal metabolism of an ion in body
a) copper b) cobalt c) mercury d) iron
94. The starting materials required for the synthesis of chlorphinramine are
a) 4-chlorobenzylcyanide & 2-bromopyridine b) 2-chlorobenzylcyanide & 4-bromopyridine
c) 4-chloropyridine & 2-bromobenzylcyanide d) 2-chloropyridine & 4-bromobenzylcyanide
95. An active metabolite of Sulindac is
a) methyl sulphate b) methyl sulphur monoxide c) sulphur dioxide d) methyl sulphide
96. Permanent deafness is the side effect of
a) amphotericin B b) streptomycin c) ofloxacillin d) erythromycin
97. The drug act by inhibiting an enzyme isoleucyl tRNA synthetase is
a) sodium fusidate b) cycloserine c) fosfomycin d) mupirocin
98. The drug act by inhibiting an enzyme DNA dependent RNA polymerase is
a) cephalaxin b) novobioscin c) ofloxacilin d) rifabutin
99. Clofazimine is the choice of drug in
a) tuberculosis b) epilepsy c) laprosy d) fungal infections
100. Nevirapine belongs to the class of anti viral drugs
a) protease inhibitor b) nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
c) non nuclease reverse transcriptase inhibitor d) nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor
101. The drug act by inhibiting an enzyme haeme polymerase is
a) mefloquine b) miconazole c) ethambutol d) atovaquone
102. A novel PPAR agonist helpful in relieving hyperglycemia is
a) metformin b) repaglinide c) rosiglitazone d) acetoxamide
103. Mifepristone is
a) estrogen antagonist b) estrogen agonist c) progesterone agonist d) progesterone antagonist
104. Match the following carbon numbers
1. Estradiol a. C19
2. Testosterone b. C18
3. Progesterone c. C21
4. cardenolides d. C23
a) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a b) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
c) 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b d) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
105. Increased risk of artherosclerosis is associated with the decreased level of
a) HDL b) LDL c) VLDL d) triglycerides
106. 3,20-dione,11β,17α-hydroxy,6α-flouro,16α-methyl is
a) Paramethasone b) dexametasone c) Prednisolone d) Corticosterone
107. An ultra short acting barbiturate is
a) pentobarbital b) butabarbital c) Phenobarbital d) hexobarbitone
108. A vitamin possessing benzopyran basic ring is
a) vitamin E b) vitamin C c) vitamin D d) vitamin B6
109. Progabide act by
a) inhibits GABA reuptake in to nerve endings b) GABA agonist
c) inhibits GABA metabolizing enzymes d) GABA antagonist
110. Proglumide is useful in GIT problems, it is
a) gastrin antagonist b) neurokinin-1 antagonist
c) substance P antagonist d) prodrug of omeprazole
111. A precursor for the synthesis of nalidixic acid is
a) 2-amino pyridine b) 2-methyl quinoline c) 2-methyl pyridine d) 2-methyl isoquinoline
112. Probenicid-penicillin show drug interaction as
a) probenicid increases its metabolism b) probenicid decreases its absorption
c) probenicid increases its urinary excretion d) probenicid decreases its urinary excretion
113. A cardiovascular agent from Remijia padunculata is
a) quinine b) stropanthidine c) quinidine d) ouabain
114. All statements regarding the SAR of benzodiazepines are correct except one, identify
a) electron withdrawing group at C7 in ring A increases the potency
b) saturation of C=N bond in ring B reduces activity
c) if branched phenyl ring is replaced by heterocyclic ring, activity rises
d) C=O group at position 2 is essential for activity
115. An anticancer agent act by causing defected microtubules polymerization due to essential protein consumption inhibition is
a) topotecan b) paclitaxal c) vincristine d) etoposide
116. About the correct answer of above question one thing is true, identify
a) inhibits topoisomerase 1 b) inhibits topoisomerase 2
b) possesses cruciferous stomata d) is a diterpenoid
117. A drug that is agonist as well as antagonist to opioid receptor is
a) meperidine b) pentazocine c) propoxyphene d) fentanyl
118. COMT’s inhibitor useful in Parkinson diseases is
a) selegiline b) tolcapone c) deprenyl d) pergyline
119. Morphine under HCl treatment, 140’c/pressure gives
a) heroin b) codeine c) apomorphine d) phencyclidine
120. All statements about prodrug are correct except one
a) dipiveferine is the prodrug of adrenaline
b) bambuterol is the prodrug of salbutamol
c) hexamine is the prodrug releasing formaldehyde used in urinary tract infections
d) hemisuccinate prodrug of propanolol is resistant to esterases in liver
121. Ritodrine and metaraminol are
a) β2 agonist & α1 antagonist b) β1 agonist & β2 antagonist
c) β2 agonist & β1 agonist d) β2 agonist & β1 antagonist
122. An ester of veratric acid (3,4-dimethoxy benzoic acid) relaxing smooth muscles is
a) papaverine b) mebeverine c) tubocurarine d) dantrolene
123. Amrinone is a potent inotropic agent, act by
a) inhibiting Na-K ATPase b) inhibiting guanyl cyclase
c) inhibiting phosphodiasterase enzyme d) activates adenyl cyclase
124. Forskolin reduces intraocular pressure & also causes bronchodilation. it is a
a) sesquitepenoid b) sesterpenoid c) ditepenoid d) alkaloid
125. Propanolol can be assayed as per IP using
a) 0.01 m methanolic NaOH b) 0.1 m TBAH c) 0.1 m NaOH d) 0.1 m HCl
126. A drug that is metabolized by sulphotransferase to active N-O sulphate is
a) guanethidine b) minoxidil c) chlorthiazide d) losartan
127. Angiotensin 3 is a
a) heptapeptide b) nonapeptide c) decapeptide d) octapeptide
128. Find the odd one
a) phenindiones b) enoxapoarin c) protamine sulphate d) dicoumarol
129. Co-trimoxazole is the combination of trimethoprim with
a) sulphisoxazol b) sulphadiazene c) sulphamethoxazole d) proguanil
130. Streptomyces veneszulae is the source of
a) Tetracyclin b) Chloramphenicol c) Nystatin d) Mitomycin
131. Configuration of chloramphenicol most effective is
a) D-threo R,R b) D-threo S,R c) D-threo S,S d) D-threo R,S
132. A beta lactamase/suicide inhibitor having oxazolidine moitee is
a) tazobactam b) salbactam c) clavulinic acid d) imipenam
133. The starting materials required for the synthesis of chlorambucil are
a) P-aminophenylbutyric acid & ethylene oxide
b) P-aminophenylbenzoic acid & methylene oxide
c) P-aminophenylbenzoic acid & ethylene oxide
d) P-aminobenzylphenolic acid & ethylene oxide
134. An anticancer agent possessing Radiomimetic activity is
a) mitotane b) cisplatin c) procarbazine d) thiotepa
135. A folic acid derivative is
a) lomustine b) busalphan c) tegafur d) methotrexate
136. A schedule describing factory premises for ayurvedic drugs comes under
a) T b) U c) Q d) FF
137. A schedule describing labeling of drugs comes under
a) D b) E c) G d) M
138. A schedule describing contraceptives standards comes under
a) W b) X c) R d) Q
139. Application for wholesale of drugs under category C, C1 but not in X is applied in
a) 20 B b) 21 B c) 21 BB d) 20 BB
140. One is not an ex-officio member of pharmacy council of india. Identify
a) the director general of health services b) the drug controller of india
c) the director, pharmacy council of india d) the director of central drug laboratory
141. Michael’s index for grade B HEPA filter is
a) 6.5 b) 5.5 c) 4.5 d) 3.5
142. Identify an optically inactive amino acid
a) alanine b) valine c) glycine d) tryptophan
143. Paper chromatography is based upon the principle of
a) absorption b) adsorption c) partition d) ion exchange
144. SGOT is associated with
a) liver infection b) Myocardial infaction c) peptic ulcer d) kidney failure
145. Nitric oxide releasing amino acid is
a) citruline b) arginine c) cystine d) methionine
146. A precursor for cori cycle is
a) succinate b) pyruvate c) lactate d) glucose
147. All statements regarding gram negative bacteria are correct except
a) multi layered b) Tiechoic acid is absent
c) Lipopolysacchride content very high d) example is Vibrio cholrae
148. Gentamycin can be assayed using
a) Staphylococus epidermis b) Staphylococus aurecus
c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae d) Bacillus pumilus
149. Immunological product for rabies is available as
a) antiviral serum b) antibacterial serum c) antitoxin d) toxoid
150. Measles vaccine is tested for checking freedom from neuro virulance on
a) ox b) monkey c) horse d) pigTop of Form
151. Roye’s sachet is used for the chemical validation of sterilization technique
a) dry heat b) moist heat c) gaseous d) radiation
152. Microbe used for the biological validation of moist heat sterilization is
a) Clostridium sporugenes b) Bacillus pumulis
c) Pseudomonas dimnuta d) Serratia mercesense
153. Cold sterilisation is
a) contineous dry heat sterilisation uder UV radiation
b) continuous moist heat sterilization under UV radiation
c) continuous moist heat sterilization under IR radiation
d) continuous dry heat sterilization under IR radiation
154. The number of degree of temperature change to produce a ten fold change in D-value is called
a) F-value b) lethal value c) Z-value d) R-value
155. An ideal emulsion parentral should have a drop size of
a) 3 μm b) 5 μm c) 2 μm d) 7 μm
156. Pyrogens can be effectively expelled out from a parentral solution by methods
a) Dry heat at 250’c for 30 min b) Passing through membrane filter
c) Reverse osmosis d) All above
157. Maximum bubble pressure test is done for checking the efficiency of
a) parentrals b) aerosols c) HEPA filter d) membrane filter
158. One statement is correct regarding parentrals
a) High volume of distribution, high protein binding, high absorption
b) Low volume of distribution, high protein binding, low absorption
c) High volume of distribution, no protein binding, no absorption
d) High volume of distribution, no protein binding, high absorption
159. Pyrogens are
a) endotoxin & dec body temp b) exotoxin & inc body temp
c) endotoxin & inc body temp d) exotoxin & dec body temp
160. A solution was shaken with high stress, soon it converted to thick gel. The solution was
a) Pseudoplastic b) Plastic c) Dilatent d) Newtonian
161. Find the correct statement
a) Adhesive force are the forces between particles of same types
b) Cohesive forces are the forces between the particles of same types
c) Cohesive forces are the forces between two rough surfaces
d) Cohesive forces are the forces between the particles of different types
162. Match the following data of angle of repose & flow properties
1. Less than 25 a) very poor
2. 25-30 b) passable
3. 30-40 c) good
4. More than 40 d) excellent
a) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a b) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d c) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a d) 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a
163. Hausner index is
a) Poured density-tapped density b) Tapped density- poured density
c) Tapped density/ poured density d) Poured density/ tapped density
164. Match the following HLB values
1. 3-8 a) sodium lauryl sulphate
2. 7-9 b) detergent
3. 13-16 c) span
4. Greater than 16 d) wetting agents
a) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a b) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a c) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b d) 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a
165. Zeta potential of a solution can be
a) Positive b) Negative c) Zero d) All of above
166. Match the following
1. Viscosity a) stokes equation
2. Surface tension b) BET equation
3. Surface area c) stalagmometer
4. Surface diameter d) ostward viscometer
a) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b b) 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a c) 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c d) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
167. The tablets with very high bioavailability is
a) Omeperazole chewable tablet b) Nitroglycerine sublingual tablet
c) Ammonium chloride troches d) Nemusilide dispensing tablet
168. A cardiac glycoside obtained from Stropanthus gratus or Acocanthera schimperi is
a) digoxin b) G-stropanthin c) ouabain d) b & c
169. Starting materials required for synthesis of Nifedipine are
a) Methyl acetoacetate & 2-nitrobenzoic acid
b) Methyl acetic acid & 2-nitrobenzaldehyde
c) Methyl acetoacetate & 2-nitrobenzaldehyde
d) Methyl acetoacetate & 2-nitrobenzoate
170. Calcium channel blocker with benzothiazipene ring is
a) nifedipine b) amlodipine c) verapamil d) diltiazem
171. Starting materials for synthesis of Propanolol are
a) α-napthol & epichlorohydrazine b) α-napthol & epichlorohydrin
c) β-napthol & epichlorohydrazine d) β-napthol & epichlorohydrin
172. Isoxuprine is a uterine relaxant. It is
a) β2 agonist b) β1 agonist c) β1 blocker d) β2 blocker
173. Guggulsterones are the steroids containing carbon numbers
a) 18 b) 19 c) 21 d) 24
174. An antidote for diazepam poisoning is
a) dessferioxime b) dimercaprol c) furosemide d) flumazenil
175. A substance that causes the problem of transplant rejection is
a) calcitrol b) colcalciferol c) calcineurin d) substance P
176. Heparin
a) inhibits antithrombin 3 b) activates antithrombin 3
c) inhibits vitamin k epoxide reductase d) activates vitamin k epoxide reductase
177. All are true about sulfinpyrazole except
a) COX inhibitor b) uricosuric agent c) antiplatelet d) anti fungal
178. An indicator chiefly used in iodimetery is
a) pot dichromate b) crystal violet c) carboxy methyl starch d) methylene blue
179. A compound used as a solvent in UV spectroscopy is
a) saturated aldehydes b) cyclohexane c) clyclohaxene d) alkyl halides
180. The value of Geminal coupling (Hz) ranges from
a) 0-15 b) 1-18 c) 5-18 d) 0-20
181. M/e ratio is dependent over
a) magnetic field b) voltage & velocity c) radius d) magnetic field, radius & voltage
182. Mclefferty arrangement is
a) migration of γ bond, breaking of β bond b) migration of β bond, breaking of γ bond
c) migration of α bond, breaking of β bond d) migration of γ bond, breaking of α bond
183. Match the following
1. Beer’s lambert law a. M/e= r²h²/2v
2. Fabrey parrot b. Λ=2ήb/m
3. Mass spectroscopy c. γH/2п
4. NMR frequency d. A=abc
a) 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a b) 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c c) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c d) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
184. T- shaped trichomes are present in
a) artemisia & clove b) clove & feverfew c) feverfew & artemisia d) feverfew
185. The active constituent of plectranthus barbalus is
a) taxol b) baccatin c) forskholin d) bixin
186. Smell of Ferula foetida is due to
a) asaresinotannol b) umbelliferone c) disulphides d) umbellic acid
187. Gibberellic acid
a) induces beta amylase, hydrolytic enzymes & glucose formation
b) inhibits beta amylase, induces hydrolytic enzymes & glucose formation
c) induces alpha amylase, hydrolytic enzymes & glucose formation
d) induces alpha amylase, hydrolytic enzymes & inhibits gluconeogenesis
188. The precursor for cynogenetic glycosides is
a) squaline b) mevalonic acids c) shikmic acid d) phenylalanine
189. Lignified trichomes are present in
a) nux vomica b) digitalis purpurea c) digitallis thapsi d) belladonna
190. St. John wort is the common name of
a) senna b) rhubarb c) hypericum d) aloe
191. Type of calcium oxalate crystals present in Urgenia indica are
a) rosette b) cluster c) acicular d) raphids
192. A selective MAO B inhibitor is
a) deprenyl b) tranylcypromine c) phenelzine d) isocarboxazid
193. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor is
a) phenelzine b) pergyline c) paroxetine d) imipramine
194. The formation of esters from ketones is
a) bayer villager rearrangement b) backmann rearrangement
c) curtius rearrangement d) Hoffmann rearrangement
195. identify the named reaction
a) Perkin’s reaction b) Hell wolhard zensticky reaction
c) Riemer tiemann reaction d) Hoffmann bromamide reaction.
196. Find the odd one that is not the isoster of rest 3 options.
a) NH b) CH2 c) O d) CH3
197. Identify the named reaction
a) wolf kishner reduction b) kolbe reaction
c) friedel craft’s acylation d) schotten baumann reaction
198. Benorylate is a prodrug of
a) paracetamol & aspirin b) aspirin & sulindac c) nemiuslide d) aspirin & nemiuslide
199. Lysuride is
a) D1 agonist b) D2 agonist c) D1, D2 agonist d) antagonist of both
200. Find the odd one
a) clonidine b) methyl dopa c) yohimbine d) guanabenzBottom of Form
Answers :
1-c 2-b 3-d 4-a 5-a 6-d 7-b 8-c 9-a 10-b 11-a 12-d 13-b 14-b 15-c 16-b 17-a 18-c 19-b 20-a 21-a 22-c 23-c 24-d 25-b 26-b 27-c 28-b 29-b 30-c 31-b 32-c 33-d 34-d 35-a 36-a 37-a 38-c 39-d 40-c 41-c 42-b 43-d 44-c 45-c 46-b 47-b 48-b 49-c 50-a 51-a 52-b 53-c 54-c 55-c 56-c 57-a 58-c 59-d 60-a 61-b 62-b 63-a 64-b 65-a 66-b 67-b 68-d 69-c 70-c 71-a 72-a 73-b 74-c 75-b 76-b 77-b 78-a 79-d 80-d 81-a 82-a 83-a 84-b 85-d 86-d 87-b 88-b 89-b 90-b 91-b 92-b 93-a 94-a 95-d 96-b 97-d 98-d 99-c 100-c 101-a 102-c 103-d 104-d 105-a 106-a 107-d 108-a 109-b 110-a 111-c 112-d 113-c 114-c 115-b 116-d 117-b 118-b 119-c 120-b 121-c 122-a, b 123-c 124-c 125-c 126-b 127-a 128-c 129-c 130-b 131-a 132-c 133-a 134-b 135-d 136-a 137-c 138-c 139-b 140-c 141-c 142-c 143-c 144-b 145-b 146-c 147-a 148-a 149-a 150-b
151-c 152-a 153-d 154-c 155-a 156-d 157-d 158-c 159-c 160-c 161-b 162-a 163-c 164-b 165-d 166-d 167-b 168-d 169-c 170-d 171-b 172-a 173-c 174-d 175-c 176-b 177-d 178-c 179-b 180-d 181-d 182-a 183-b 184-c 185-c 186-c 187-c 188-c 189-a 190-c 191-d 192-a 193-c 194-a 195-c 196-d 197-d 198-a 199-c 200-c
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